Hullo. Just wondering about something silly as always.
Are percentages in the form of ab.cdef...% which are strictly only derived from proper?fractions?(x/y where y>x) uniformly distributed given the factor of rounding up numbers when converting fractions to percentages??
Taking into account the decimal places of the derived percentage and the number of digits in the numerator and denominator of the fraction.?
Eg. Limiting percentage to 1d.p. (ab.c%); fractions to a maximum of 3 significant figures on numerator and denominator (1/3,2/24,34/245,135/579).?
Would be lovely to see if this is worth asking. And if it's uniformly distributed anyway, please show me proofs either way. And possibly derive an equation to determine the probability of a certain numerical?percentage given limiting factors such as decimal places of the percentage and significant figures of the numerator and denominator of the fraction??Thank you. Have a nice day.
This question was answered on: Jan 30, 2021
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Jan 30, 2021EXPERT
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